Friday, July 22, 2016

Acute inflammation - General Pathology Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) - With Answers

       

    True and False type MCQ's

     01.Acute inflammation
a.     Heal by suppuration with abscess formation
b.     Completely heal by resolution
c.      Heal with fibrosis
d.     Heal with regeneration
e.     Leads to amyloidosis
        
02  Regarding acute inflammation
a. Active hyperaemia is due to increased venous pressure
b. Increased pressure is due to gaps in basement membrane
c. Prostaglandin is an endogenous mediator of increased venous pressure
d. Excess proteins are removed by lymph
e. Cellular inflammatory exudates has low O2 tension

03. Regarding acute inflammation
a. Active hyperaemia is due to arteriolar relaxation
b. Angiotensin is an endogenous mediator causing increase in permeability
c. Monocyte infiltration is an active process
d. Increased permeability is due to gaps in the basement membrane
e. Proteins are taken into the lymphatics by pinocytosis

04. Regarding acute inflammation
a. It does not depend on the structure of the tissue affected
b. Mild acute inflammation is healed by the granulation tissue formation
c. In mild acute inflammation the cardinal signs of inflammation cannot be seen
d. Dilation of blood vessels are due to stimulation of autonomic innervation of arterioles
e. In severe inflammation cell necrosis may occur

05. Regarding acute inflammation
a. Migration of monocytes is a passive process
b. Fibrin network forms a mechanical barrier to the spread of bacteria
c. Promotion of immunity is due to antibody mediated immunity as well as cell mediated immunity
d. Slowing of blood flow preceded by active hyperaemia
e. Formation of granulation tissue leading to fibrosis is a recognized sequale

06. “Triple response” of acute inflammation is characterized by
a. Redness of the injury followed by reflex vasodilation
b. Local tissue wheal representing swelling
c. Development of heat
d. Involvement of both a local nerve reflex and a histamine response
e. Increased reaction due to a mixture of polypetides

07. Effects of acute inflammation include
a. Prevention of local tissue injury by dilution of the toxin
b. Prevention of spread of organism by forming a fibrin network
c. Maintaining long term immunity by promoting antibody formation
d. Destruction of microorganisms due to heat
e. Healing of the injury by promoting immobility due to pain

08. Cells that take part in acute inflammation include
a. Plasma cells
b. Mast cells
c. Lymphocytes
d. Polymorphonuclear leucocytes
e. Macrophages

09. Exudate occurs as a result of
a. Increased capillary permeability
b. Direct action of prostacycline and complement
c. Chemical mediators
d. Axonal reflex via substance P
e. Prostaglandin action

10. In acute inflammation oedema is produced by
a. increased capillary permeability
b. Direct reflex
c. Neural reflex
d. Antibody reactions
e. Increased intravascular pressure

11. Substances important in the increased vascular permeability of acute inflammation include
a. Globulin permeability factor
b. Cortisol
c. Histamine
d. Plasma kinines
e. Seratonin

12. Essential features of abscess formation are
a. Eosinophil leucocytosis
b. Destruction of tissue
c. Pyaemia
d. Septicaemia
e. Neutrophil leucocytosis

13. Regarding chronic inflammation
a. Important feature is production of vascular granulation tissue
b. Nature of the lesion depend on the intensity and persistence of the stimulation
c. Most of the migrating cells into the injured tissue are mononuclear cells
d. It gives rise to serious effects by narrowing orifices and tubes
e. Fibrosis tissue formation always have harmful effects

14. Regarding chronic inflammation
a. Microorganisms ingested by macrophages are destroyed by it
b. In autoimmune thyroiditis it serves a useful function
c. In arteritis, fibrous tissue formation strengthens the arterial wall
d. Presence of large numbers of lymphocytes suggest hypersensitivity
e. Production of vascular granulation tissue is important feature

15. Malignant disease may complicate the chronic inflammatory conditions
a. Sarcoidosis
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. Chronic osteomyelitis
d. Asbestosis
e. Schistosomiasis

16. Granulomas are characteristically found in
a. Beryllium pneumonitis
b. Leprosy
c. Tuberculosis
d. Syphilis
e. Coccidiodomycosis

17. Granuloma is a type of inflammatory reaction characteristic of
a. Tuberculosis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Regional ileitis
d. Staphylococcal pyaemia
e. Sarcoidosis

18. Cells which may be found in granulomas
a. Plasma cells
b. Giant cells
c. Lymphocytes
d. Epithelioid cells
e. Macrophages

19. Epithelial cell granulomas are seen in
a. Typhoid fever
b. Crohn’s disease
c. Foerign body reactions
d. Tuberculosis
e. Alcoholic hepatitis

20. Caseous granuloma are seen in
a. Tuberculosis
b. Lupus vulgaris
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Foreign body granulomas
e. Inflammatory bowel disease

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Tuesday, July 19, 2016

Answers for RESPIRATORY SYSTEM PHYSIOLOGY-MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ) - LUNG MECHANICS


01.  Increased respiratory minute volume occurs with

a. F - 100mmHg is the normal arterial partial pressure of oxygen

b. T - This is prominent in animals as a thermo regulatory mechanism

c. F - Brain damage suppress the respiratory center

d. T - As a compensatory mechanism

e. T - Reduction in P O2


02. Increased in respiratory minute volume at rest occurs with

a. T

b. T - Increase is marked in P O2 lower than 60 mm Hg

c. Haemoglobin does not affect the partial pressure and partial pressure is due to dissolved oxygen

d. CO2 is a activator of central chemo receptors. But CO2 concentration more than 7% causes respiratory center inhibition due to CNS suppression.

e. F - Inhibit respiration


03. Airway resistance to air flow

a. F

b. T

c. T - Haeliox a treatment for asthma

d. T - As density of air reduces

e. T - Obstructive pulmonary disorder


04. During quite respiration

a. T

b. F - During expiration it becomes positive

c. F - Functional residual capacity

d. F

e. T


05. During maximal inspiration in a healthy adult

a. F -20mmHg

b. F - Increases

c. F - Contracts

d. T

e. F


06. During inspiration there is an increase in

a. T

b. F

c. F - Reduction

d. F - Reduction

e. F- Reduction


07. Regarding pressure changes during respiration

a. F

b. F- 5mmHg

c. T

d. T

e. F- Never Rises


08. Intra- pleural pressure

a.T

b. T

c. F

d. F.

e. T

Sunday, July 17, 2016

Respiratory system Physiology-Multiple choice Questions (MCQ) - Lung Mechanics


Please Mark True or False

01.  Increased respiratory minute volume occurs with

a. Arterial pO2 of 100mmHg

b. Rise in body temperature

c. Brain damage

d. Renal tubular acidosis

e. Lowered barometric pressure


02. Increased in respiratory minute volume at rest occurs with

a. Acute rise in arterial pCO2

b. Arterial pO2 of 65 mmHg

c. Haemoglobin of 5g/dl

d. Breathing air containing 5% CO2

e. Rise in arterial blood pressure


03. Airway resistance to air flow

a. Varies directly with the velocity of flow

b. Varies directly with the fourth power of the radius

c. Is reduced when breathing helium – oxygen gas mixture

d. Is decreased at high altitude

e. Is increased in asthma


04. During quite respiration

a. Intra- pleural pressure is always sub atmospheric

b. Intra-alveolar pressure is always sub atmospheric

c. Volume of air left in the lungs at the end of expiration constitutes the residual volume

d. Volume of air left in the lungs at the end of inspiration constitutes the vital capacity

e. External intercostal muscles contract in the inspiratory phase


05. During maximal inspiration in a healthy adult

a. Intra pleural pressure rises to about 2 mm Hg

b. Venous return decreased

c. Skeletal muscles of the diaphragm relaxes

d. Alveolar ventilation increases

e. Heart rate is reduced


06. During inspiration there is an increase in

a. Intra-abdominal pressure

b. Intra- pulmonary

c. Intra- pleural pressure

d. Intra- oesophageal pressure

e. Intra thoracic pressure


07. Regarding pressure changes during respiration

a. Intra- pleural pressure is nearly equal to intra oesophageal pressure

b. During quite inspiration in an adult intra pleural pressure is about 6 mm Hg

c. During quite expiration the intra pleural pressure is slightly below atmospheric pressure

d. During quite expiration the intra pulmonary pressure is slightly above atmospheric pressure

e. Intra pleural pressure rises above atmospheric pressure with a forced expiration


08. Intra- pleural pressure

a. Is subatmospheric throughout normal inspiration and expiration

b. Becomes more subatmospheric with inspiration

c. Can be assessed by measuring intra gastric pressure

d. Become less subatmospheric during inspiration with a high air way resistane.

e. Rises above atmospheric pressure with a forced expiration against resistance.

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Saturday, July 16, 2016

Answers for MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ) ON LUNG VOLUMES IN RESPIRATORY SYSTEM with explanations

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01.

a. T - This response is the definition of TIDAL Volume
b. F - Residual volume is the amount of air in the lungs after a Forceful expiration
c. F - It ranges between 1.3 L to 1.5 L
d. T - This is the definition for the Residual volume
e. F - Air inspired with a maximal inspiratory effort after a quite normal INSPIRATION is called    inspiratory reserve volume.

02. 


a. T
b. F - Not ventilated. Maximum amount of air that can be  either inspired or expired in one breath. This includes Inspiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume + Expiratoyr reserve volume
c. F- residual capacity is the amount of air in the lungs after normal tidal expiration. That is 2.5 L
d. T
e. T

03.

a. T
b. F - Acconts for the difference in alvolar air and artirial P Co2
c. F - reduced as increased blood flow reduces areas of sluggish blood flow through lungs
d. F- This is anatomical dead space
e. T -Physiological dead space includes the anatomical dead space

04.

a. F
b. T - Due to increased fibrosis in the lungs
c. T
d. F - About 2.5 L
e. T

05.

a. F - Following tidal expiration
b. F - 2.5 L
c. T
d. T - Restrictive diseases increases FRC and Residual volume
e.  T- Due to abdominal content is pushed towards the lung 

06.

a. T
b. F
c. T
d. T
e. T - Due to fluid occupying air space 

07.

a. F - Reduced
b. T
c. T
d. T
e. F - As alveolar air is trapped in asthma respiratory air has enough time for the diffusion,. Existing oxygen diffuses effectively

08.

a. T
b. T
c. F
d. T - Blood flow to the lung reduces
e. F - Reduces as anatomical dead space reduces.(Air way volume in Nose, Pharynx and larynx is reduced)

09.

a. F (30%)
b. F -Ventilation and Perfusion mismatch increases the physiological dead space
c. T
d. T - Reduced intra thoracic pressure expands the air way too
e. F - No difference

10.


a. F - This is useful in assessing obstructive lung diseases
b. F - Reduces
c. T
d. T
e. T - Normal FEV time is 4.5s, it increases in obstructive lung diseases in more than 5s

Thursday, July 14, 2016

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) on Lung Volumes in Respiratory System


1 Regarding lung volumes,
      a. Tridal volume is the amount of air that moves in or out of the lungs with each breath
      b. Residual volume is the amount of air in the lungs after a normal expiration
      c. Residual volume is approximately 2 L in a healthy adult
      d. Physiological dead space is the volume of gas not equilibrating with blood
      e. Air inspired with a maximal inspiratory effort after a quite normal expiration is called    inspiratory reserve volume.


2 Regarding lung volumes
a.    Tridal volume in a normal resting adult is approximately 500 ml
b.    Vital capacity is the maximal volume that can be ventilated in a single breath
c.     Residual capacity is the sum of inspiratory volume and the residual volume
d.     Residual volume is the volume of air in the lungs at the end of a normal tidal expiration
e.     Residual volume can be measured by helium dilution technique

3  Physiological dead space
a.     Can be calculated from measurement of tidal volume CO2 content of expired air and alveolar air
b.     Accounts for the difference in composition of alveolar air and expired air
c.      Is increased immediately after exercise
d.     Explains the relative increase in effective alveolar ventilation during shallow breathing
e.      Is greater than the anatomical dead space

4  Functional residual capacity
a.    Can be measured using only a spirometer
b.    Decreased significantly with age
c.     Is less in the supine position than in the standing position
d.     Is about 1 L in health
e.     Equals expiratory reserve volume plus residual volume

5.  Functional residual capacity is
       a.The volume of air in the lungs at the end of a maximal expiration
       b.About 3L in the normal adult
       c. Decreased when standing from the prone position
      d. Increased in emphysematous diseased of the lungs
      e.  Decreased in pregnancy

6.  Functional residual capacity is reduced

     a. when the subject assumes the supine from the upright position
     b. In emphysema
     c. In pulmonary fibrosis
     d. With collapse of one lobe
     e. In pulmonary oedema

7.  Physiological dead space is increased in

    a. Endotracheal intubation
    b. General anaesthesia
    c. Severe hypovolaemia
    d. Pulmonary embolus
    e. Bronchial asthma

8. Physiological dead space is increased under the following conditions

   a.  Alveoli which are perfused with blood but not receiving ventilation
   b.  Rapid shallow breathing
   c. Carbon monoxide breathing
   d. Right to left shunt in the atria
   e.  After tracheostomy

9.  Anatomical dead space is
  a. Approximately 2% of tidal volume
  b.  Increased in ventilation perfusion mismatch
  c.  Decreased with tracheostomy
  d.  Increased during inspiration
  e.  Increased pulmonary embolism

10. Ratio of FEV1 to FVC
  a.  Is a useful way of assessing the severity of restrictive lung disease
  b.  Is increased in obstructive lung disease
  c.  Is decreased in chronic bronchitis
  d.  Can be increased by the inhalation of bronchodilators in asthma
  e. Is probably less than 50% if forced expiratory time is more than 6 s

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Wednesday, July 13, 2016

Answers for Physiology MCQ 1 - (Single Best Type) for Undergraduates and Post graduates

Visit here for the Questions of 

Answers

1         D 
2         E
3         A 
4         E 
5         C 
6         E 
7         C 
8         E 
9         A 
10       A 
11       E 
12       D 
13       A 
14       D 
15       E
16       B 
17       E 
18       C
19       B 
20       E 
21       D 
22       D 
23       D 
24       E 
25       C 
26       D 
27       C 
28       C 
29       B 
30       D 
31       B 
32       C 
33       D 
34       B 
35       B 
36       C 
37       C 
38       B 
39       A 
40       C 
41       E 
42       C 
43       E 
44       D 
45       D 

46       E

Physiology MCQ 1 - (Single Best Type) With answers for Undergraduates and Post graduates



1      Fick’s law of diffusion is dependent on all EXCEPT:

a)    thickness of membrane barrier
b)    the solubility of the gas
c)    the molecular weight of the gas
d)    the posture of the subject
e)    the area of the membrane


2      The Law of La Place predicts the following EXCEPT:

a)    increased myocardial work in dilated cardiomyopathy
b)    the protection of capillaries against rupture
c)    the relationship between transmural tension and wall tension
d)    the pattern of intravesical pressure / volume curve
e)    the failure of alveoli to collapse in expiration


3      In the kidney:


a)    Glucose is removed from the urine by secondary active transport
b)    100% glucose is absorbed in the distal tubule
c)    the calculated renal threshold for glucose is lower than its actual value
d)    phlorizin enhances glucose binding to the sodium-glucose symport
e)    levo isoform of glucose is more efficiently transported by the sodium-glucose symport


4      With regards to the normal alveolus:


a)    surfactant is produced by type I pneumocytes
b)    alveolar size has little effect on surface tension
c)    surfactant is composed of hydrophilic molecules
d)    large alveoli have a tendency to collapse into smaller ones
e)    surrounding tissues exert a force preventing alveolar collapse


5      Increased baroreceptor discharge acts via the medulla to:


a)    increase heart rate
b)    increase stroke volume
c)    increase vessel diameter
d)    increase blood pressure
e)    increase renin secretion


6      Amino acids are derived from:


a)    creatinine
b)    neurotransmitters
c)    deamination
d)    ammonia
e)    transamination



7      In the coronary circulation:

a)    blood flow is maximal during systole
b)    45-50% of o2 is extracted
c)    lactate is a vasodilator
d)    b-adrenergic receptors mediate vasoconstriction
e)    the ostia of coronary arteries are shut during systole



8      On climbing Everest:

a)    erythropoietin secretion rises after 2-3 days
b)    nifedipine alleviates the symptoms of mountain sickness
c)    alveolar PCO2 levels rise
d)    PCO2 levels fall because of decreased oxygen content of the air
e)    Initially the O2Hb dissociation shifts to the left



9      A b nerve fibres:


a)    conduct touch and pressure impulses
b)    are unmyelinated
c)    have the largest diameter of all nerves
d)    have a slow conduction velocity
e)    conduct preganglionic impulses



10    All of the following ascending sensory pathways are located in the dorsal       column  EXCEPT:

a)    pain
b)    touch
c)    pressure
d)    vibration
e)    proprioception


11   Erythropoietin:


a)    acts to increase erythrocytes by cell division
b)    is principally inactivated by the spleen
c)    causes increase in erythrocytes in 24 hours
d)    is produced by adrenal gland
e)    production is inhibited by theophylline



12      Concerning the visual pathway:

a)   macular sparing occurs due to the arrangement of fibres in the optic tract
b)   Brodmann’s area is located in the temporal lobe
c)   the optic tracts end in the medial geniculate body
d)      the optic disc lies 3mm medial to and slightly above the posterior pole of the  globe
e)   the pituitary tumour often causes a homonymous hemianopia



13      During exercise:


a)      regional blood flow to the skin remains unchanged
b)      diastolic pressures tend to rise more than systolic pressure
c)      O2 consumption of skeletal muscle usually triples
d)      blood flow to the brain increases
e)      cardiac output increases 50-fold



14      Regarding body fluids:


a)      blood plasma is 15% of body weight
b)      intracellular fluid is 20% of body weight
c)      extracellular fluid volume is about 7L in a 70kg man
d)      interstitial fluid volume is 10.5L in a 70 kg man
e)      extracellular fluid is 40% of body weight



15      Regarding CO2 transport in blood:

a)      50% is in the dissolved form
b)      the Haldane effect is the fact that oxygenation of the blood increases its ability to carry CO2
c)      ionic dissociation of carbonic acid requires the presence of carbonic acid requires the presence of carbonic anhydrase to be a fast process.
d)      an increase in PCO2 in blood shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the left
e)      approximately 30% of the venous-arterial difference is attributable to carbamino compounds


16      Regarding movement across cell membranes:

a)      exocytosis requires Na+ and energy
b)      insulin reuptake is by receptor-mediated endocytosis
c)      thyroid hormones reduce Na+K+ATPase pump activity
d)      acute transport of Na+ is rarely coupled with other substances
e)      Na+K+ATPase has a 1:1 coupling ratio



17      Within the sympathetic nervous system:

a)     sweat glands are supplied by B2  adrenergic receptors
b)     activation promotes gluconeogenesis
c)     bronchial glandular secretion is inhibited by B2 adrenergic receptor stimulation
d)     at the post ganglionic neuron, dopamine is responsible for the slow excitory post synaptic potential
e)     the preganglionic neurons leave the spinal cord in the ventral roots of the thoracolumbar spine


18   In the visual pathway:

a)     axons of the ganglion cells pass in the optic nerve and optic tract and end in the medial geniculate body of the thalamus
b)     fibres of each temporal hemiretina decussate in the optic chiasm
c)     the primary visual receiving area is Brodmann’s area 17
d)     the fovea contains no cones
e)     80% of input to the geniculate nucleus comes from the retina; the other input is from brain regions involved in feedback regulation


19   Fluid movement across the capillary wall is mediated mainly by:

a)     diffusion
b)     filtration
c)     endocytosis
d)     exocytosis
e)     ion channels


20    Regarding conduction in the heart:

a)     stimulation of right vagus inhibits the AV node
b)     the rate of discharge of the SAN is independent of temperature
c)     depolarisation of ventricular muscle starts on the right
d)     the speed of conduction is fastest in ventricular muscle
e)     the SA node and AV node exhibit the same speed of conduction


21    In calcium metabolism:


a)      gastrin, glucagon and secretin inhibit calcitonin secretion
b)      human calcitonin has a half life of 30 minutes
c)      calcitonin increases bone resorption
d)      PTH increases phosphate excretion in the urine
e)      1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol decreases calcium absorption from the intestine


22    In the cardiac action potential:


a)      the resting membrane potential is -70mV
b)      the initial depolarisation is due to Ca2+ influx
c)      the plateau is due to IKI current
d)      the initial rapid repolarisation is due to Na+ channel closure
e)      CAMP decreases the active transport of Ca2+ to the sarcoplasmic reticulum thus accelerating relaxation and shortening the systolic


23   When a skeletal muscle contracts:

a)     calcium is released and this initiates contraction by binding Troponin T
b)     there is always a decrease in the length of the muscle
c)     it does so at a mechanical efficiency of 80%
d)     if it is an isotonic contraction, work is done
e)     the initiating event is acetylcholine binding to a G-protein linked receptor



24     The resting membrane potential:

a)      is +70mV in mammalian cardiac cells
b)      is responsible for only a small part of the energy requirement of a nerve
c)     is increased with increased external Na+ concentration
d)     implies that the inside of the cell is positive relative to the outside of the cell at rest
e)     is decreased by increasing the external K+ concentration



25  The alveolar gas equation:


a)    is also known as Bohr’s equation
b)    can be used to calculate anatomical dead space
c)    is influenced by diet
d)    is independent of PiO2
e)    requires sampling of gas to determine PACO2


26  Regarding renal tubular function:

a)    the clearance is less than the GFR if there is tubular secretion
b)    the active transport of Na+  occurs in all portions of the tubule
c)    proximal tubular reabsorbate is slightly hypotonic
d)    water can leak across tight junctions back into the tubule lumen
e)    30% of the filtered water enters the distal tubule



27   Smooth muscle contractions:

a)    are dependent on an intact nerve supply
b)    are a result of Ca2+ influx into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c)    are smooth, discrete and fine in multi-unit smooth muscle
d)    are dependent on troponin
e)    are exaggerated in vitro when bathed in acelylcholine



28    Under physiological conditions most of circulating T4 is bound to:

a)     thyroxine binding prealbumin
b)     tramothynetim
c)     thyroxine-binding-globulin
d)     a2 globulin
e)     iodothyronine



29     Deficiency of b oxidation of fatty acids causes:


a)     pulmonary hypersecretion
b)     cardiomyopathy
c)     cirrhosis
d)     glomerulonephritis
e)     asthma



30     Regarding ventilation during exercise:


a)     pulmonary blood flow is increased from 5.5l/min to 55 l/min
b)     abrupt increase in ventilation at onset of exercise is due to increased respiratory rate
c)     increases in ventilation are proportionate to increase CO2 production
d)     CO2 excretion increases from 200ml/min to up to 8000ml/min
e)     there is a fall in blood pH during moderate exercise


31   Regarding reflexes:
             

a)    the reaction time for knee jerk is 0.1sec
b)    Jendrassik’s manoeuvre enhances knee jerk reflex
c)    spindles are located in muscle tendons
d)    afferent neurons carry the impulse to the muscle
e)    muscle spindle fibres are innervated by Ib type nerve


32   Temperature regulation:

a)      is integrated by cortical pathways
b)      systems result in hypothermia when the anterior hypothalmus is stimulated
c)      is mediated by endogenous pyrogens produced by monocytes, macrophages and Kupfter cells
d)      is deranged due to a mutation in the ryanodine receptor resulting in excess sodium released in malignant hyperthermia
e)      results in maintenance of a constant body temperature over 24 hours


33   A decrease in the length of ventricular cardiac muscle fibres can be brought about by:

a)     stronger atrial contraction
b)     increase in total blood volume
c)     increase venous tone
d)     standing
e)     increase in negative intrathoracic pressure


34    Resting blood flow to: 

a)      the liver equals 10% of cardiac output
b)      the heart equals 5% of cardiac output
c)      the brain equals 30% of cardiac output
d)      the skin equals 20% of cardiac output
e)      the skeletal muscle equals 40% of cardiac output


35    Regarding the renal handling of sodium:


a)     80% of the total filtered load of sodium is reabsorbed
b)     sodium is actively transported out of all parts of the renal tubule except the thin portion of the loop of Henle
c)     only a minority of sodium is actively transported  via the lateral intercellular spaces
d)     sodium transport is coupled to the movement of hydrogen and glucose but not to amino acids and phosphates
e)     the sodium / hydrogen exchanges in the proximal tubule extrudes one sodium for every hydrogen reabsorbed


36    Oxygen transport:


a)     the oxygen dissociation curve shifts left with a fall in pH
b)     more oxygen is supplied to tissues by a fall in 2,3 DPG levels
c)     2,3, DPG levels are increased by ascent to 7,000 metres
d)     2,3 DPG levels in stored blood increase
e)     oxygen dissociation curve shifts right with a drop in temperature


37    Regarding the cardiac cycle:

a)      stroke volume is normally approximately 50ml
b)      contraction of the left atrium precedes the right atrium
c)      the c wave of the jugular venous pressure corresponds to movement of the closed tricuspid valve.
d)      Left ventricular pressure immediately falls after opening of the aortic valve
e)      At rapid heart rates, systole shortens more than diastole


38   The following a true regarding lung volumes and compliance EXCEPT:
           
a)    compliance decreases in obstructive lung disease
b)    FEVl / FVC ratio increase in obstructive lung disease
c)    Functional residual capacity is the sum of ERV and RV
d)    The change in lung volume per unit change in airway pressure is the compliance of the lung
e)    Vital capacity is the largest amount of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiratory effort


39   Regarding synaptic transmission:

a)      opening of sodium channels excites the post synaptic neuron
b)      voltage gated sodium channels on the presynaptic neuron determine the quantity of neurotransmitter released
c)      neuropeptides are responsible for acute responses of the nervous system
d)      small molecule type transmitters do not stimulate the receptor activated enzymes
e)      cholinesterase is responsible for synthesis of acetylcholine.


40  The juxtaglomacular apparatus:

a)    contains macular densa cells in afferent and efferent arterioles
b)    contain juxtaglomerular  cells in afferent and arterioles only
c)    responds to a fall in arterial pressure by increasing renin secretion
d)    responds to an increase in sodium concentration by increasing GFR
e)    releases renin which is activated by angiotensin  I


41  With regards to ventilation:


a)    the autonomic control centre is located in the midbrain
b)    brainstem respiratory neurons only discharge during inspiration
c)    arterial PAO2 must be below 80mmHg to produce increased discharge from peripheral chemoreceptor
d)    medullary chemoreceptors monitor O2 concentration in the CSF
e)    in metabolic alkalosis ventilation is depressed



42  In metabolic alkalosis:

a)    a common cause is ingestion of aspirin
b)    respiratory compensation can fully restore pH to normal
c)    base excess is positive
d)    treatment with NaHCO3 restores pH to normal
e)    there is more renal excretion of H+ ions



43  Compensatory mechanisms in metabolic acidosis includes:


a)     a fall in pH
b)     decreased CO2 formation
c)     decreased minute volume
d)     an alkaline urine
e)     reduction in the PCO2 of alveolar gas



44  With respect to blood pressure control:

a)    the stress relaxation mechanism is one of the immediate responses
b)    angiotensin acts by increasing venous tone
c)    baroreceptors are activated over the course of hours
d)    the rennin angiotensin is vital in controlling the effect of excess Na+ intake
e)    renal responses precede capillary fluid shifts


45  Gastric emptying occurs:


a)    via sympathetic mediation
b)    when pressure increases in the body of the stomach
c)    due to stomach contractions lasting up to 30 seconds
d)    with no regurgitation of contents from the duodenum
e)    with the passage of mixed solid and liquid gastric contents into the duodenum


46    All of the following increase blood sugar level EXCEPT:

a)    T4
b)    cortisol
c)    growth hormone
d)    somatostatin
e)    lutenising hormonethe rennin angiotensin is vital in controlling the effect of excess Na+ intake
e)    renal responses precede capillary fluid shifts


45  Gastric emptying occurs:


a)    via sympathetic mediation
b)    when pressure increases in the body of the stomach
c)    due to stomach contractions lasting up to 30 seconds
d)    with no regurgitation of contents from the duodenum
e)    with the passage of mixed solid and liquid gastric contents into the duodenum


46    All of the following increase blood sugar level EXCEPT:

a)    T4
b)    cortisol
c)    growth hormone
d)    somatostatin

e)    lutenising hormone


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